SSC Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Previous Paper – 2018 “held on 25 January 2018” Morning Shift (Civil Engineering)
Q1:- Air permeability method is used in which of the following test of cement?
Options:
1) Compressive strength test
2) Fineness test
3) Soundness test
4) Slump test
Answer: Fineness test
Q2:- The main purpose of the soundness test of the cement is to determine the____.
Options:
1) Change in volume of cement after setting
2) Strength
3) Fineness
4) Time taken to harden
Answer: change in volume of cement after setting
Q3:- What is the target mean strength (N/mm2) of the M30 grade concrete, if the standard deviation is 5.0?
Options:
1) 21.75
2) 30
3) 38.25
4) 40.25
Answer: 38.25
Q4:- Which of the following method is used to make the timber fire resistance?
Options:
1) Coating with tar paint.
2) Pumping creosote oil into timber at high pressure.
3) Seasoning process.
4) Soaking it in ammonium sulphate.
Answer: Soaking it in ammonium sulphate.
Q5:- In which of the following process, plug mill is used?
Options:
1) Burning of bricks
2) Drying of bricks
3) Moulding of clay
4) Preparation of clay
Answer: Preparation of clay
Q6:- According to the IS specifications, initial setting time of the ordinary Portland cement should be____.
Options:
1) 10 minutes
2) 30 minutes
3) 6 hours
4) 10 hours
Answer: 30 minutes
Q7:- Which of the following is the main reason to provide frog in the bricks?
Options:
1) Print manufacturer’s name.
2) Form keyed joint between brick and mortar.
3) Improve thermal insulation
4) Reduce the weight of brick.
Answer: Form keyed joint between brick and mortar.
Q8:- Which of the following is used as the vehicle in the enamel paints?
Options:
1) Linseed oil
2) Mustard
3) Varnish
4) Water
Answer: Varnish
Q9:- If one cement bag has 0.035m2 volume of cement, the number of bags required for one tonne of cement is______.
Options:
1) 10
2) 12
3) 15
4) 20
Answer: 20
Q10:- Which of the following is fused together to prepare the high alumina cement?
Options:
1) Bauxite and limestone
2) Bauxite, limestone and gypsum
3) Limestone, gypsum and clay
4) Limestone, bauxite, gypsum, clay and chalk
Answer: Bauxite and limestone
Q11:- Accuracy in the measurement of the volume in cubic meter should be near to_____.
Options:
1) 0.001
2) 0.01
3) 0.02
4) 0.1
Answer: 0.01
Q12:- Deduction for total length of the central line at the corner where two walls meet is_____.
Options:
1) Half of thickness of wall
2) No deduction
3) Thickness of wall
4) Twice of the thickness of wall
Answer: no deduction
Q13:- Which of the following is estimated by using a bar bending schedule?
Options:
1) Brick work
2) Concrete work
3) Earthwork
4) Steel work
Answer: Steel work
Q14:- Which of the following is measured in square meter?
Options:
1) Cornice
2) Concrete work
3) Shuttering
4) Steel reinforcement bar
Answer: Shuttering
Q15:- Which of the following statements are the CORRECT for estimation of plastering?
1) For opening up to 0.5 square meters, no deduction is made.
2) For opening exceeding 0.5 square meters and up to 3 square meters, deduction is made for one face.
3) For opening up to 3 square meters, deduction is made for both faces.
4) For ends of beams, no deduction is made.
Options:
1) 1 and 4
2) 1, 2 and 4
3) 1, 3 and 4
4) 3 and 4
Answer: 1, 2 and 4
Q16:- Chowkhat or frame of the door is measured in______.
Options:
1) Cubic meter
2) Meter
3) Quintal
4) Square meter
Answer: cubic meter
Q17:- Calculate the preliminary estimate for a building having a total carpet area of 500 square meters. Extra provision as 10% of the carpet area is provided for walls and verandah. The plinth area rate is Rs. 1,200 per square meter.
Options:
1) 60000
2) 540000
3) 600000
4) 660000
Answer: 660000
Q18:- Calculate the volume of earth work for an embankment of length L and width B. The mean depth of the embankment is D and side slope is S : 1.Using mid- sectional area method.
Options:
1) BxDxL
2) (B+B+sD)xDxL
3) (B+B+sD)xDxL/2
4) (BD+sD2)xL
Answer: (BD+sD2)xL
Q19:- Calculate the quantity of the sand required for 8 cubic meter brick work with cement mortar (1 : 3).
Options:
1) 1.38
2) 1.5
3) 1.8
4) 2.4
Answer: 1.8
Q20:- Calculate the capitalized value of a building having annual rent of Rs. 20,000 and highest rate of interest is 5%.
Options:
1) 1000
2) 21000
3) 220000
4) 400000
Answer: 400000
Q21:- Plumb bob lines at two different places in plane surveying are_____.
Options:
1) Cut at the center of the earth
2) Inclined
3) Parallel to each other
4) Perpendicular to each other
Answer: parallel to each other
Q22:- A curve whose radius varies from infinity to a certain value is called______.
Options:
1) Compound curve
2) Circular curve
3) Reverse curve
4) Transition curve
Answer: transition curve
Q23:- What is the representative fraction for a scale of 10 cm = 20 km?
Options:
1) 1 cm = 2 km
2) 1 cm = 20,000 m
3) 1:2
4) 1 : 200,000
Answer: 1 : 200,000
Q24:- The line which is used to collect the details of the objects in an area is called_____.
Options:
1) Base line
2) Check line
3) Main line
4) Tie line
Answer: tie line
Q25:- Calculate true bearing of a line, if magnetic bearing of the line is S 60o E and magnetic declination is 5o eastward.
Options:
1) N 55o E
2) N 65o E
3) 55o E
4) 65o E
Answer:- S 55o E
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Q26:- Calculate the total correction (m) required, if a line measured using 20 m chain is 2380 m. Actual length of the chain is 20.2 m.
Options:
1) 22.6
2) 23.56
3) 23.8
4) 476
Answer: 23.8
Q27:- The least count of a theodolite is_____.
Options:
1) 1 degree
2) 2 minutes
3) 2 seconds
4) 20 seconds
Answer: 20
Q28:- Calculate the corrected staff reading at point A, if the staff reading is taken from an instrument which is set at a distance of 1.5 km from the point A 3.46 m.
Options:
1) 3.28
2) 3.3
3) 3.48
4) 3.48
Answer: 3.3
Q29:- Calculate the intersect angle (degree) for the anallactic telescope.
Options:
1) 0.467
2) 0.573
3) 0.592
4) 0.598
Answer: 0.573
Q30:- Which of the following statements are CORRECT for contour map?
1) Parallel contour shows uniform slope.
2) Very closed contour shows steep slope.
3) Very closed contour shows flat area.
4) Two contours at different elevation cut at right angle.
Options:
1) 1,2 and 4
2) 1 and 2
3) 1, 3 and 4
4) 2 and 4
Answer: 1 and 2
Q31:- What is the terminal velocity (m/s) for a 4 g particle which is falling in the water with projected area of 5 sq. cm? The coefficient of drag is given as 0.47.
Options:
1) 0.58
2) 5.2
3) 7.5
4) 10
Answer: 0.58
Q32:- The coefficient of curvature for well graded soil lies between______.
Options:
1) 1 to 2
2) 1 to 3
3) 1 to 5
4) 5 to 7
Answer: 1 to 3
Q33:- The coefficient of uniformity for well graded sand must be greater than______.
Options:
1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 10
Answer: 6
Q34:- Casagrande’s apparatus is used to determine_____.
Options:
1) Liquid limit
2) Plastic limit
3) Shear strength
4) Shrinkage limit
Answer: liquid limit
Q35:- On increasing temperature, the viscosity of gas_____.
Options:
1) Decreases
2) First increases and then rapidly decrease
3) Increases
4) Not affected by temperature
Answer: increases
Q36:- If the 90% volume of iceberg is immersed in the water and only 10% volume is above the water surface. What is the density of the iceberg, the density of sea water is given as 1025 kg/m3?
Options:
1) 900 kg/m3
2) 922.5 kg/m3
3) 950 kg/m3
4) 1000 kg/m3
Answer: 922.5 kg/m3
Q37:- The head developed by the centrifugal pump is 40 m while operating at the speed of 750 rpm. If the rated capacity is given as 50 cumec, what is the specific speed of centrifugal pump?
Options:
1) 150
2) 300
3) 333
4) 500
Answer: 333
Q38:- Surface tension for an ideal fluid is_____.
Options:
1) Depends on temperature
2) One
3) Infinite
4) Zero
Answer: zero
Q39:- Which of the following is not true about density of the gases?
Options:
1) Proportional to pressure.
2) Inversely proportional to temperature.
3) Inversely proportional to volume.
4) Do not depend on temperature and pressure.
Answer: Do not depend on temperature and pressure.
Q40:- The stable equilibrium is achieved in the floating body when_____.
Options:
1) Center of gravity is below the centerof buoyancy
2) Metacenter is above the center of gravity
3) Metacenter is below the center of gravity
4) Metacentric height is zero
Answer: metacenter is above the center of gravity
Q41:- What is the value of friction factor, if the diameter of pipe is 50 cm and roughness height is 0.25 cm?
Options:
1) 0.0003
2) 0.003
3) 0.01002
4) 0.03035
Answer: 0.03035
Q42:– What is the head loss in pipe due to friction over the length of 30 km, if the diameter of pipe is 80 cm and velocity of flow is 30 cm/s? Take friction factor 0.032.
Options:
1) 4.0 m
2) 4.5 m
3) 5.5 m
4) 10 m
Answer: 5.5 m
Q43:- The range of Froud number for the weak jump is_____.
Options:
1) 1.0 to 1.7
2) 1.7 to 2.5
3) 2.5 to 4.5
4) 4.5 to 9.0
Answer: 1.7 to 2.5
Q44:- What is the velocity (m/s) with which elementary wave can travel upstream, if the velocity of flow is 2 m/s and depth of flow in channel is 1 m?
Options:
1) 1.132
2) 2
3) 3.132
4) 5.132
Answer: 1.132
Q45:- Which one is the best method of reclamation of the alkaline soil?
Options:
1) Addition of gypsum to soil.
2) Addition of gypsum to soil and leaching.
3) Leaching.
4) Providing good drainage system.
Answer: Addition of gypsum to soil and leaching.
Q46:- The intensity of the rainfall for successive 1 hours period of a 6 hours storm are 2, 6, 8, 9, 7 and 3 cm/hr. The runoff is 4 cm/hr. Calculate the Ф-index (cm/hr).
Options:
1) 2.5
2) 3.5
3) 4.6
4) 7.67
Answer: 3.5
Q47:- The intermediate sight distance is equal to______.
Options:
1) Overtaking sight distance
2) Stopping sight distance
3) Twice of stopping sight distance
4) Twice of stopping sight distance
Answer: twice of stopping sight distance
Q48:- Calculate the equivalent radius of the resisting section of 20 cm thick slab, if the ratio of the radius of wheel load distribution to the thickness of the slab is 0.5.
Options:
1) 8
2) 10.16
3) 20
4) 23.66
Answer: 10.16
Q49:- Which of the following is responsible for the corrosion of concrete sewers?
Options:
1) Chlorine
2) Oxygen
3) Nitrogen
4) Septic conditions
Answer: Septic conditions
Q50:– Which of the following is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?
Options:
1) Carbon dioxide
2) Chlorofluorocarbons
3) Hydrogen peroxide
4) Oxides of nitrogen
Answer: Chlorofluorocarbons
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Q51:- Live loads, with time can vary in:-
Options:
1) Magnitude
2) Position
3) Neither position nor magnitude
4) Position as well as magnitude
Answer: Position as well as magnitude
Q52:- Impact load results from which type of effects of loads applied?
Options:
1) Static
2) Dynamic
3) Static and dynamic
4) Neither static nor dynamic
Answer: Dynamic
Q53:- Which type of drainage system will collect the rainwater?
Options:
1) Primary
2) Secondary
3) Tertiary
4) Primary and tertiary
Answer: Primary
Q54:- Moment at a hinge will be:-
Options:
1) Infinity
2) Zero
3) Depends upon acting forces
4) None of these
Answer: Zero
Q55:- For the validity of principle of superposition, materials should behave in which manner?
Options:
1) Linear-elastic
2) Non-linear-elastic
3) Non-linear- inelastic
4) Linear- inelastic
Answer: Linear- inelastic
Q56:- If 4 reactions are acting on a beam, then the system is:-
Options:
1) Unstable & indeterminate
2) Stable & indeterminate
3) Stable & determinate
4) Can’t say
Answer: Can’t say
Q57:- Which of the following statements is true?
1. If a truss consists of a non-triangular element, then it will essentially be unstable.
2. In the above cases, instability is the most probable occurrence, but there are a lot of examples which are unstable.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) None of these
Answer: Only B
Q58:- Which of the following statements is true?
1. A roller is provided at end of a bridge truss to allow thermal expansion.
2. A roller provides freedom of deformation in horizontal plane in case of thermal expansion.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) None of these
Answer: Both A and B
Q59:- Trusses and frames are different as:-
Options:
1) Trusses can bend, frames can’t
2) Both can bend
3) None of them can bend
4) Trusses can’t but frame can
Answer: Trusses can’t but frame can
Q60:- Given that J is no. of joints. B and R are no. of members and no. of reactions. If B = 5, R = 4 and J = 4, then the truss is:-
Options:
1) Statically determinate
2) Statically indeterminate
3) Stable
4) Unstable
Answer: Statically indeterminate
Q61:- What is the ideal water-cement ratio to be used while hand mixing?
Options:
1) 0.4-0.5
2) 0.5-0.6
3) 0.6-1
4) 1.6-2
Answer: 0.5-0.6
Q62:- As water cement ratio increases, ______also increases.
Options:
1) Compressive strength
2) Tensile strength
3) Bleeding
4) Workability
Answer: Workability
Q63:- Ready mix plant and central mix plant differ in:
Options:
1) Transportation
2) Setting time
3) Properties
4) Water addition
Answer: Water addition
Q64:- Compacting of concrete is done to:
Options:
1) Place concrete on flat surface
2) Remove air bubbles
3) Place concrete on sloping surface
4) Introduce air bubbles
Answer: Remove air bubbles
Q65:- Which of the following statements is true?
1. A gap of 0.3m is to be maintained between cement bag and wall, while storing cement.
2. A gap 100 cm is to be maintained between cement bag and wall, while storing cement.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) None of these
Answer: Only A
Q66:- Which of the following statements is true?
1. Impermeability is a property of fresh concrete.
2. Impermeability is a not property of fresh concrete.
3. Impermeability is nothing to with concrete at all.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) None of these
Answer: Only A
Q67:- M15 concrete is used for:
Options:
1) Dams
2) Foundation
3) R.C.C
4) Mass concreting works
Answer: Foundation
Q68:- Tensile strength of concrete is found out using:
Options:
1) CTM
2) Gradual tensile test
3) Split tensile test
4) Radial tensile test
Answer: Split tensile test
Q69:- A slump of 50-100mm can be used for:
Options:
1) Mass concreting
2) Strip footing
3) Trench fill
4) Beams
Answer: Beams
Q70:- Before plastering, the surface has to be:
Options:
1) Rough
2) Smooth
3) Cemented
4) Watered
Answer: Rough
Q71:- Wood surface requires______ coats of plastering.
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 1
4) None of these
Answer: 1
Q72:- For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of concrete mix to be used is
1. 1:3:6
2. 1:2:4
3. 1:1.5:3
4. 1:1:2
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D
Answer: Only C
Q73:- For preparing ordinary concrete, what is the quantity of water used?
Options:
1) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 20% of weight of cement
2) 10% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
3) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement
4) 30% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
Answer: 5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement
Q74:- If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand, aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6, the grade of concrete is
Options:
1) M100
2) M150
3) M200
4) M300
Answer: M100
Q75:- For which of the following is an ideal warehouse is provided?
Options:
1) Water proof masonry walls
2) Water proof roof
3) Few windows which remain generally closed
4) All of these
Answer: All of these
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Q76:- If the internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m x 5.6 m and the maximum height of piles is 2.70 m, then what is the maximum number of bags to be stored in two piles?
Options:
1) 1500
2) 2000
3) 2200
4) 3000
Answer: 3000
Q77:- Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
1) The weight of ingredients of concrete mix, is taken in kilograms
2) Water and aggregates are measured in liters
3) The finished concrete is measured in cubic meters
4) All of these
Answer: All of these
Q78:- For concreting tunnel linings, transportation of concrete is done by which of the following?
Options:
1) Pans
2) Wheel borrows
3) Containers
4) Pumps
Answer: pumps
Q79:- ______is used to construct very thin, hard and strong surface
Options:
1) Reinforced Cement Concrete
2) Post-Stressed Concrete
3) Ferro-Cement
4) None of these
Answer: Ferro-Cement
Q80:- How many methods of ferro cementing are there?
Options:
1) 3
2) 2
3) 4
4) 6
Answer: 3
Q81:– The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab that is taken into consideration?
Options:
1) One-fourth the width of the panel
2) Half the width of the panel
3) Radius of the column
4) Diameter of the column
Answer: half the width of the panel
Q82:- If W is the Uniformly distributed load on a circular slab of radius R fixed at its ends, the maximum positive radial R fixed at its ends, the maximum positive radial moment at its center is
A) 3WR2 / 16
B) 2WR2 / 16
C) WR2 / 16
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) Zero
Answer: C Only
Q83:- For initial estimate for a beam design, the width is assumed
Options:
1) 1/15th of the span
2) 1/20th of the span
3) 1/25th of the span
4) 1/30th of the span
Answer: 1/30th of the span
Q84:- The thickness of the topping of a ribbed slab, varies between
Options:
1) 3 cm to 5 cm
2) 5 cm to 8 cm
3) 8 cm to 10 cm
4) 12 cm to 15 cm
Answer: 5 cm to 8 cm
Q85:- For a ribbed slab
Options:
1) Clear spacing between ribs shall not be greater than 4.5 cm
2) Width of the rib shall not be less than 7.5 cm
3) Overall depth of the slab shall not exceed four times the breadth of the rib
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q86:- Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
1) On an absolutely rigid foundation base the pressure will be more at the edges of the foundation
2) On an absolutely rigid foundation base the pressure will be uniform
3) On an absolutely rigid foundation base the pressure will not be uniform
4) On an absolutely rigid foundation base the pressure will be zero at the center of the foundation
Answer: On an absolutely rigid foundation base the pressure will not be uniform
Q87:- According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges is kept less than
Options:
1) 20 cm
2) 30 cm
3) 40 cm
4) 50 cm
Answer: 30 cm
Q88:- If the diameter of longitudinal bars of a square column is 16 mm, the diameter of lateral ties should not be less than
Options:
1) 4 mm
2) 5 mm
3) 6 mm
4) 8 mm
Answer: 5 mm
Q89:- Maximum strain theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit is known as
Options:
1) Guest’s or Trecas’ theory
2) St.Venant’s theory
3) Rankine’s theory
4) Haig’s theory
Answer: St.Venant’s theory
Q90:- Gradually applied static loads do not change with time their
Options:
1) Magnitude
2) Direction
3) Point of application
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q91:- The thickness of slabs and beams must be measured to the nearest:-
Options:
1) 0.001 m
2) 0.005 m
3) 0.01 m
4) 0.05 m
Answer: 0.005 m
Q92:- A composite beam is composed of two equal strips one of brass and other of steel. If the temperature is raised
Options:
1) Steel experiences tensile force
2) Brass experiences compressive force
3) Composite beam gets subjected to a couple
4) All of these
Answer: All of these
Q93:- A linear force-deformation relation is obtained in materials
Options:
1) Having elastic stress- strain property
2) Having plastic stress- strain property
3) Which are rigid elastic materials
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q94:- In a structure, why are the cables and wires are generally used?
Options:
1) To resist shear stress
2) As compression member
3) As flexural member
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q95:- The ability of a material to absorb energy till the elastic limit is known as
1) Ductility
2) Malleability
3) Elasticity
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q96:- If a material has identical properties in all directions, It is said to be
Options:
1) Homogeneous
2) Elastic
3) Isotropic
4) None of these
Answer: isotropic
Q97:- If all the dimensions of a prismatic bar are double, then the maximum stress produced in it under its weight will
Options:
1) Decrease
2) Increase to two times
3) Increase to three times
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q98:- The ratio of the length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration of the cross sectional area of the column is known as
Options:
1) Slenderness ratio
2) Buckling ratio
3) Crippling ratio
4) Compressive ratio
Answer: slenderness ratio
Q99:- In a built-up section carrying tensile force, the flanges of two channels are turned outward
Options:
1) to simplify the transverse connections
2) to minimize lacing
3) to have greater lateral rigidity
4) All option are correct
Answer: to have greater lateral rigidity
Q100:- A tension member, if subjected to possible reversal of stress due to wind, the slenderness ratio of the member should not exceed
Options:
1) 180
2) 200
3) 250
4) 350
Answer: 350
