RRB JE (Junior Engineer Exam)
Exam Duration: 120
Number of Questions: 150
Total Marks: 150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong: 0.33 Negative marks
#rrbje
Q 1: A system and its environment put together constitute
Options:
1) An adiabatic system
2) An isolated system
3) A segregated system
4) A homogeneous system
Answer: An isolated system
Q 2: Slope of constant volume line on temperature entropy diagram is given by
Options:
1) CP / T
2) T / CP
3) CV / T
4) T / CV
Answer: T / CV
Q 3: Stefen Boltzman law is applicable to
Options:
1) Gray body
2) White body
3) Black body
4) Blue body
Answer: Black body
Q 4: Heat is transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in
Options:
1) Insulted pipes carrying hot water
2) Refrigerator freezer coils
3) Melting of Ice
4) Boiler furnaces
Answer: Boiler furnaces
Q 5: A four stroke diesel engine has
Options:
1) One valve
2) Two valves
3) Three valves
4) Four valves
Answer: Three valves
Q 6: A certain engine produces 10kw indicated power, Its mechanical efficiency is 70%. Then the frictional power is
Options:
1) 2 kw
2) 2.5 kw
3) 3 kw
4) 3.5 kw
Answer: 3 kw
Q 7: Morse test is applicable only to
Options:
1) Single cylinder CI engines
2) Single cylinder SI engines
3) Multi-cylinder CI engines
4) Multi-cylinder SI and CI engines
Answer: Multi-cylinder SI and CI engines
Q 8: The consumable electrode is used in
Options:
1) Carbon arc welding
2) Submerged arc welding
3) TIG welding
4) MIG Welding
Answer: MIG Welding
Q 9: The phenomenon of weld decay occurs in
Options:
1) Cast iron
2) Brass
3) Bronze
4) Stainless steel
Answer: Stainless steel
Q 10: The given figure represents
Options:
1) Up milling
2) Down milling
3) Climb milling
4) Angular milling
Answer: Up milling
Q 11: In sand moulding the bottom flask is called
Options:
1) Cope
2) Drag
3) Fillet
4) Riddle
Answer: Drag
Q 12: Cast iron pipes are cast by
Options:
1) Die casting process
2) Centrifugal casting process
3) Investment casting process
4) Vaccum Moulding process
Answer: Centrifugal casting process
Q 13: Swagging is an operation of
Options:
1) Hot rolling
2) Forging
3) Extusion
4) Piercing
Answer: Forging
Q 14: In Die cutting operation, punching a number of holes in a sheet is called
Options:
1) Perforating
2) Parting
3) Notching
4) Lancing
Answer: Perforating
Q 15: The flow of current in solids is due to
Options:
1) Electrons
2) Electrons and ions
3) Atoms
4) Atoms and nucleus
Answer: Electrons
Q 16: Ohm’s law is applicable for
Options:
1) Conductors only
2) Superconductors only
3) Conductors and semiconductors
4) Semiconductors only
Answer: Conductors only
Q 17: “The algebraic sum of all the currents meeting at a point in a circuit is equal to zero.” This statement is
Options:
1) Kirchoff’s Junction Rule
2) Ampere Circuital Law
3) Kirchoff’s loop Rule
4) Lenz Rule
Answer: Kirchoff’s Junction Rule
Q 18: In a DC generator, the critical resistance refers to the resistance of
Options:
1) Brushes
2) Field
3) Armature
4) Load
Answer: Field
Q 19: A transformer core is laminated in order to prevent
Options:
1) Current leakage
2) Eddy currents loss
3) Oil leakage
4) Hysteresis loss
Answer: Eddy currents loss
Q 20: HRC fuses on a transformer provide protection against
Options:
1) Insulation failure
2) Internal faults
3) External faults
4) Low oil level
Answer: External faults
Q 21: Buchholz’s relay is used in
Options:
1) Motor protection
2) Line protection
3) Generator protection
4) Transformer protection
Answer: Transformer protection
Q 22: The stator frame in an induction motor is used
Options:
1) To protect the whole machine
2) To ventilate the armature
3) As a return for flux
4) To hold the armature stampings
Answer: As a return for flux
Q 23: The starting winding of a single phase winding resides in
Options:
1) Armature
2) Field
3) Rotor
4) Stator
Answer: Stator
Q 24: Galvanizing is a process of applying a layer of zinc on metal surface. It is also known as
Options:
1) Electro refining
2) Anoding
3) Electroplating
4) Cathoding
Answer: Electroplating
Q 25: A single transistor can be used to build which of the following logic gates
Options:
1) OR
2) AND
3) NOR
4) NOT
Answer: NOT
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Q 26: Which of the following expressions represents logical AND gate ?
Options:
1) A+B
2) A/B
3) A>B
4) A.B
Answer: A.B
Q 27: Substances which generate potential ifference hen exposed to light are known as
Options:
1) Photo voltaic material
2) Light generators
3) Thermoelectric generators
4) Volt generators
Answer: Photo voltaic material
Q 28: Most commonly used control used control element in voltage regulators is
Options:
1) BJT
2) UJT
3) FET
4) SBS
Answer: BJT
Q 29: In a differential amplifier, an ideal CMRR is
Options:
1) Infinity
2) Zero
3) +1
4) -1
Answer: Infinity
Q 30: What is the equivalent of decimal 14 binary ?
Options:
1) 1110
2) 1011
3) 1101
4) 1111
Answer: 1110
Q 31: How many electrons are there in the valence shell of a pure semiconductor ?
Options:
1) 1
2) 3
3) 4
4) 6
Answer: 4
Q 32: Exclusive-OR (XOR) logic gates can be constructed from what other logic gates ?
Options:
1) OR gates only
2) AND gates and NOT gates
3) AND gates, OR gates, and NOT gates
4) OR gates and NOT gates
Answer: AND gates, OR gates, and NOT gates
Q 33: The main advantage of frequency modulation over amplitude modulation is
Options:
1) That there will be no distortion
2) That the complete information is contained in the side bands
3) That it uses a wider band of frequencies
4) The elimination of noises
Answer: The elimination of noises
Q 34: If the modulus of elasticity is zero, the material is said to be
Options:
1) Rigid
2) Elastic
3) Flexible
4) Plastic
Answer: Plastic
Q 35: The process of mixing AF signal and RF waves is known as
Options:
1) Modulation
2) Demodulation
3) Oscillation
4) Amplification
Answer: Modulation
Q 36: Water content of soil can be
Options:
1) Greater than 100%
2) Less than 0%
3) Only from 0% to 100%
4) Never be greater than 100%
Answer: Greater than 100%
Q 37: The maximum percentage of moment redistribution allowed in RCC beams is
Options:
1) 10%
2) 20%
3) 30%
4) 40%
Answer: 30%
Q 38: bending compressive and tensile stress respectively are calculated based on
Options:
1) Net area and gross area
2) Gross area and net area
3) Net area in both cases
4) Gross area in both cases
Answer: Gross area and net area
Q 39) The liquid used in manometers should have
Options:
1) Low density
2) High density
3) Low surface tension
4) High surface tension
Answer: Low density
Q 40: Which of the following Instruments is generally used for base line measurements ?
Options:
1) Chain
2) Metallic tape
3) Steel tape
4) Invar tape
Answer: Invar tape
Q 41: In a bar chart the vertical axis represents
Options:
1) Time
2) Types of activities
3) Number of labours
4) Various activities of the project
Answer: Various activities of the project
Q 42: Initial setting time is maximum for
Options:
1) Portland-Pozzolana cement
2) Portland-slag cement
3) Low heat Portland-pozzolana cement
4) High strength Portland cement
Answer: Low heat Portland-pozzolana cement
Q 43: The viscosity of a gas
Options:
1) Decreases with increases in temperature
2) Increases with increase in temperature
3) Is independent of temperature
4) Is independent of pressure for very high pressure intensities
Answer: Increases with increase in temperature
Q 44: In an internal focusing type of telescope, the lens provided is
Options:
1) Concave
2) Convex
3) Plano-convex
4) Plano-concave
Answer: Concave
Q 45: Voids ratio of a soil mass can
Options:
1) Never be greater than unity
2) Be zero
3) Take any value greater than zero
4) Take values between 0 and 1 only
Answer: Take any value greater than zero
Q 46: The main ingredients of port and cement are
Options:
1) Lime and silica
2) Lime and alumina
3) Silica and alumina
4) Lime and Iron
Answer: Lime and silica
Q 47: Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage ?
Options:
1) Small range moving coil voltmeter
2) D.C. potentiometer
3) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
4) Hot wire voltmeter
Answer: D.C. potentiometer
Q 48: A direct current can be measured by
Options:
1) A D.C. potentiometer directly
2) A D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance
3) A D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
4) D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with volt ratio box and standard resistance
Answer: A D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance
Q 49: Basically a potentiometer is a device for
Options:
1) Comparing two voltages
2) Measuring a current
3) Comparing two currents
4) Measuring a voltage
Answer: Comparing two voltages
Q 50: In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
Options:
1) As long as possible
2) As short as possible
3) Neither too small nor too large
4) Very thick
Answer: As long as possible
RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 51: Standard resistor is made from
Options:
1) Platinum
2) Manganese
3) Silver
4) Nichrome
Answer: Manganese
Q 52: In surface water, the colour produced by colloidal suspension is termed as
Options:
1) Apparent colour
2) True colour
3) Light colour
4) Dark colour
Answer: True colour
Q 53: The stokes equation used for determination of settling velocity of discrete particle is
Options:
1) VS = g (ρS – 1) d2 / 18 μ
2) VS = g (ρS – 1) d2 / 18 v
3) VS = g (ρS – 1) d / 18 v
4) VS = g (ρS – 1)2 / 18 μ
Answer: VS = g (ρS – 1) d2 / 18 μ
Q 54: The amount of oxygen required by microorganism to decompose the biodegradable organic is called
Options:
1) Oxygen demand
2) Oxygen deficiency
3) Biochemical oxygen demand
4) Chemical oxygen demand
Answer: Biochemical oxygen demand
Q 55: The formation of photochemical smog is caused by
Options:
1) NOX, CO, HC, O3
2) NOX, CO2, HC, O3
3) NOX, PB, HC, O3
4) NOX, SOX, HC, O3
Answer: NOX, CO, HC, O3
Q 56: The threshold of sound pressure that a normal healthy person can respond to is
Options:
1) 0.0002 Pa
2) 0.00002 Pa
3) 0.002 Pa
4) 0.02 Pa
Answer: 0.00002 Pa
Q 57: In pre- industrial era the concentration of carbon dioxide, Co2 was
Options:
1) 200 ppm
2) 360 ppm
3) 265 – 290 ppm
4) 300 ppm
Answer: 265 – 290 ppm
Q 58: Which of the following is not a valid category of impact printers ?
Options:
1) Daisy-wheel printers
2) Line printers
3) Drum printers
4) Laser Printers
Answer: Laser Printers
Q 59: Which of the following is not true about ROM ?
Options:
1) Random access memory
2) Read only memory
3) Non-volatile memory
4) Sequential access memory
Answer: Sequential access memory
Q 60: Which of the following is a component of Central Processing Unit (CPU) ?
Options:
1) Hard Disk
2) Keyboard
3) Registers
4) Random Access Memory (RAM)
Answer: Registers
Q 61: Original ASCII coding scheme uses ______ bits for coding 128 different characters.
Options:
1) 6
2) 7
3) 8
4) 16
Answer: 7
Q 62: The binary representation of 129.25 is_______
Options:
1) (10000001.01)2
2) (11000001.01)2
3) (10000011.10)2
4) (10000001.11)2
Answer: (10000001.01)2
Q 63: Considering X as a binary variable, the Boolean expression X + 0 is equivalent to
Options:
1) X
2) 1
3) 0
4) X’
Answer: X
Q 64: The 2’s compliment of the binary number (10001100)2 is
Options:
1) (01001000)2
2) (01110100)2
3) (00100111)2
4) (11110111)2
Answer: (01110100)2
Q 65: Windows 7 is a_________
Options:
1) Real-time operating system
2) Multi-user operating system
3) Multi-tasking operating system
4) Distributed operating system
Answer: Multi-tasking operating system
Q 66: Class ‘A’ IP addresses use________ bits for Host ID.
Options:
1) 8
2) 16
3) 24
4) 32
Answer: 24
Q 67: Which of the following is not a Web browser ?
Options:
1) Opera
2) NetSurf
3) www
4) Chrome
Answer: WWW
Q 68: The R.F. of a scale is
Options:
1) <1
2) =1
3) >1
4) Any of these
Answer: Any of these
Q 69: Which of the following methods is not used for drawing elliptical curves ?
Options:
1) Oblong method
2) Tangent method
3) Concentric circles method
4) Intersecting arc method
Answer: Tangent method
Q 70: If a line is parallel to V.P. and inclined to H.P., its top view will be
Options:
1) A point
2) A line of larger dimension
3) A line of smaller dimension
4) A line of same dimension
Answer: A line of smaller dimension
Q 71: In first-angle projection method, the relative positions of the observer, object and plane are
Options:
1) Plane is placed between observer and object
2) Observer is placed between object and plane
3) Object is placed between observer and plane
4) may be placed in any order
Answer: Object is placed between observer and plane
Q 72: A square laminal is perpendicular to both the reference planes, its top and front views will be
Options:
1) The straight lines
2) The squares
3) A square and a straight line respectively
4) A straight line a square respectively
Answer: The straight lines
Q 73: A 5kg mass at rest on a frictionless table is acted upon by a constant force of 12 N. The distance travelled by it in 2s is
Options:
1) 1.2 m
2) 2.4 m
3) 4.8 m
4) 9.6 m
Answer: 4.8 m
Q 74: The gravitational force between two bodies kept at a distance d id proportional to
Options:
1) 1/d
2) d
3) 1/d2
4) d2
Answer: 1/d2
Q 75: An object of 10 kg is raised through a height of 2m. The workdone is (g=9.8 m/s2)
Options:
1) 196 J
2) 98 J
3) 19.6 J
4) 4.9 J
Answer: 196 J
RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 76: Which of the following statements about sound and light waves is correct ?
Options:
1) Both sound and light waves are transverse
2) Both sound and light waves are longitudinal
3) Sound wave is transverse but light wave is longitudinal
4) Sound wave is longitudinal but light wave is transverse
Answer: Sound wave is longitudinal but light wave is transverse
Q 77: A beam of light is incident on a surface of a rectangular glass slab (μ = 1.52). If the velocity of the beam before it enters the slab is 3×108 m/s, its velocity after emerging from the slab is
Options:
1) 1.97 x 108 m/s
2) 3 x 108 m/s
3) 4.56 x 108 m/s
4) 1.5 x 108 m/s
Answer: 3 x 108 m/s
Q 78: Three resistors, each with resistance r, are in series in a circuit. They are replaced by one equivalent resistor of resistance R. Which of the following statements is correct ?
Options:
1) R is smaller than r
2) The voltage across R equals the voltage across r
3) The current through R equals the current through r
4) The power dissipated in R equals the power dissipated in r
Answer: The current through R equals the current through r
Q 79: According to law of constant proportions, what mass of oxygen would be present in a sample of carbon dioxide gas containing 3 gram of carbon ?
Options:
1) 3 g
2) 6 g
3) 8 g
4) 12 g
Answer: 8 g
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Q 80: Which of the following is a process of galvanization ?
Options:
1) Mixing of a metal with another metal by melting
2) Coating the surface of a metal with zinc
3) Coating the surface of a metal with its oxide
4) Painting a metal
Answer: Coating the surface of a metal with zinc
Q 81: Which element has the least number of valence electrons ?
Options:
1) Chlorine
2) Sodium
3) Fluorine
4) Oxygen
Answer: Sodium
Q 82: For the reaction, 2 Na + H2 → 2NaH, which of the following statements are correct ?
- i) Na is oxidized
- ii) H2 is oxidized
iii) H2 acts as an oxidizing agent
- iv) Na acts as an oxidizing agent
Options:
1) i & iii
2) i & ii
3) ii & iii
4) ii & iv
Answer: i & iii
Q 83: Which of the following compounds would react with sodium hydrogen carbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas ?
Options:
1) CH3 CH2OH
2) CH3CH3
3) CH2=CH2
4) CH3COOH
Answer: CH3COOH
Q 84: In which of the following reactions does NH3 act both as an acid and a base ?
Options:
1) NH3 + H2O → NH4+ + OH–
2) 2NH3 → NH2– + NH4+
3) NH3 + HCL → NH4+ + Cl–
4) NH3 + NaOH → NaNH2 + H2O
Answer: 2NH3 → NH2– + NH4+
Q 85: The plant organelles which can trap sunlight are
Options:
1) Chlorophyll only
2) Chloroplasts only
3) Mitochondria only
4) Mitochondria and Chloroplasts
Answer: Chloroplasts only
Q 86: Which of the following diseases is not spread by mosquitoes ?
Options:
1) Malaria
2) Dengue
3) Filaria
4) Tuberculosis
Answer: Tuberculosis
Q 87: The following plants belong to the group
Options:
1) Angiosperms
2) Gymnosperms
3) Bryophytes
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>4) Pteridophytes
Answer: Angiosperms
Q 88: Fish has a streamlined body to
Options:
1) Balance the body while swimming
2) Counter the resistance water
3) Gain speed as they move forward
4) Avoid collision with other fish
Answer: Counter the resistance water
Q 89: Landslides and soil erosion are occurring more frequently than before because
Options:
1) Climate has changed
2) Forests have been cut
3) Rainfall has been cut
4) Drought has dried the soil
Answer: Forests have been cut
Q 90: Air enters the lungs due to movement of
Options:
1) Rib muscles only
2) Diaphragm only
3) Trachea and bronchi
4) Rib muscles and diaphragm
Answer: Rib muscles and diaphragm
Q 91: The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their LCM is 72. If one number is 36, the other number is
Options:
1) 12
2) 24
3) 36
4) 48
Answer: 24
Q 92: The largest number which divides 81 and 108, leaving reminders 6 and 3 respectively is
Options:
1) 9
2) 15
3) 18
4) 515
Answer: 15
Q 93: If a:b=4:5 and b:c=2:3, then c:a is
Options:
1) 15 : 8
2) 3 : 4
3) 8 : 15
4) 3 : 5
Answer: 15 : 8
Q 94: If 3, 5, x, 25 are in proportion, then x is equal to
Options:
1) 5
2) 10
3) 15
4) 75
Answer: 15
Q 95: Successive discounts of 30% and 10% are equivalent to a single discount of
Options:
1) 20%
2) 35%
3) 36%
4) 37%
Answer: 37%
Q 96: The simple interest on rupees 200 for 3 years at 6% per annum in rupees is
Options:
1) 36
2) 18
3) 24
4) 48
Answer: 36
Q 97: A sum of money doubles itself in 4 years when the Interest is compounded annually. The number of years when it will become eight times is
Options:
1) 32
2) 16
3) 12
4) 8
Answer: 12
Q 98: If C.P. of 12 articles is equal to S.P. of 10 articles, then in the whole transaction there is a profit of
Options:
1) (50/3)%
2) (25/3)%
3) 25%
4) 20%
Answer: 20%
Q 99: To gain 25% after allowing a discount of 20%, the shopkeeper should mark the price of the article which cost him Rs.400 as
Options:
1) Rs.525
2) Rs.580
3) Rs.625
4) Rs.650
Answer: Rs.625
Q 100: A shopkeeper mixes 40kg of sugar which costs him Rs.36 per kg with 27 kg of sugar which costs him Rs.30 per kg. He sells the mixture at Rs.35 per kg. His gain ercent is
Options:
1) (38/9)%
2) (400/49)%
3) (100/9)%
4) 10%
Answer: (38/9)%
RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 101: In two vessels A and B, the milk and water are in the ratio of 5 : 2 and 4 : 5 respectively. The ratio in which these are mixed to obtain in new mixture which contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2 is
Options:
1) 7 : 6
2) 49 : 36
3) 15 : 8
4) 36 : 49
Answer: 49 : 36
Q 102: Speed of a boat in still water is 3 km/hr, the speed of the stream is 1 km/hr. The time taken to go 4 km upstream in minutes is
Options:
1) 48
2) 60
3) 96
4) 120
Answer: 120
Q 103: A train 100 m long is moving at 40 km/hr. The time in seconds, it will take pass another train 150 m long which is moving at 50 km/h in the opposite direction from the moment they meet is
Options:
1) 6
2) 8
3) 10
4) 15
Answer: 10
Q 104: A and B can do a piece of work in 24 days. If efficiency of A is double than B, then in how many days, A alone can do the same work ?
Options:
1) 30
2) 36
3) 60
4) 72
Answer: 36
Q 105: P and Q can do a piece of work in 12 days, Q and R in 15 days and R and P in 20 days. In how many days Q alone can do the same work ?
Options:
1) 20
2) 30
3) 47
4) 60
Answer: 20
Q 106: The average of first five prime numbers is
Options:
1) 3.6
2) 4.5
3) 5.5
4) 5.6
Answer: 5.6
Q 107: The average weight of 100 students is 46 kg. The average weight of boys is 50 kg. If the number of boys is 60, the average weight of girls in kilograms is
Options:
1) 35
2) 40
3) 45
4) 50
Answer: 40
Q 108: Which term of AP; 7, 14, 21, 28,…… is 77 ?
Options:
1) 9th
2) 10th
3) 11th
4) 12th
Answer: 11th
Q 109: The third term of a G.P. is -3. The product of its first five terms is
Options:
1) 34
2) -34
3) 35
4) -35
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>Answer: -35
Q 110: A ladder 15 m long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an angle of 60o with thw wall, the height of the wall is
Options:
1) 7.5 m
2) 5√3 m
3) (15√3 / 2) m
4) 10√3 m
Answer: 7.5 m
Q 111: From a point on the bridge across a river the angles of depression of the banks on the opposite side of the river are 30o and 45o respectively. If the bridge is at a height of 3m from the bank, the width of the river is
Options:
1) 2(√3 + 1) m
2) 3(√3 + 1) m
3) 4(√3 + 1) m
4) 2(2√3 + 1) m
Answer: 3(√3 + 1) m
Q 112: If (x – 2) is a factor of ax3 + 3x2 + 4x + 4, then a is equal to
Options:
1) 3
2) 4
3) –3
4) – 4
Answer: –3
Q 113: One of the factors of (36x2 – 1) + (1 + 6x)2
Options:
1) 6 + x
2) 6 – x
3) 6x – 1
4) 12x
Answer: 12x
Q 114: All values of k for which x2 + kx + 16 = 0 has real roots is
Options:
1) 8 ≤ k ≤ -8
2) -8 ≤ k ≤ 8
3) k ≥ 8
4) k ≥ -8
Answer: 8 ≤ k ≤ -8
Q 115: The sum and product of the roots of the equation x2 – 4x + 5 = 0 are respectively
Options:
1) 5, – 4
2) 4, -5
3) -4, -5
4) 4, 5
Answer: 4, 5
Q 116: Who discovered the sea route to India ?
Options:
1) Vasco da Gama
2) Magellan
3) Diaz
4) Christopher Columbus
Answer: Vasco da Gama
Q 117: In the medieval times, Bedouins were
Options:
1) Early Romans
2) Greek Emperors
3) Wandering Arab camel herdsmen
4) Tribal horse riders
Answer: Wandering Arab camel herdsmen
Q 118: The major cause of top soil being lost due to soil erosion is
Options:
1) Westerly winds
2) Thermal inversion
3) Deforestation
4) Cattle grazing
Answer: Deforestation
Q 119: The term used for armed rebellion against constituted authority is
Options:
1) Insurgency
2) Terrorism
3) Naxalism
4) Coup
Answer: Insurgency
Q 120: The treaty of Versailles was signed in the summer of 1919 with
Options:
1) Germany
2) Austria
3) Turkey
4) Hungary
Answer: Germany
Q 121: About 30% of the ‘Great wall of China’ has recently been found to have disappeared due to
Options:
1) Just Natural causes
2) Global Warming
3) Natural disasters
4) Natural causes and theft of bricks for building houses
Answer: Natural causes and theft of bricks for building houses
Q 122: Is Virus a living being ?
Options:
1) Yes, because it has DNA
2) No, because it does not possess the machinery to duplicate itself
3) Yes, because it can divide to reproduce when inside a living being
4) No, because its coat is made of protein
Answer: No, because it does not possess the machinery to duplicate itself
Q 123: What does a plant do with the sugar it makes ?
Options:
1) Uses it up completely to get energy for its survival
2) Stores it in its roots
3) Converts it into starch
4) Stores it for herbivores to feed upon
Answer: Converts it into starch
Q 124: Which out of the following is in all cases a hereditary disorder
Options:
1) Thallasemia
2) Diabetes mellitus
3) Tuberculosis
4) Anaemia
Answer: Thallasemia
Q 125: The latest Nobal Peace Prize was awarded to two people, a man and a woman. To which countries do they belong ?
Options:
1) China
2) India and Pakistan
3) US and Greece
4) India and Indonesia
Answer: India and Pakistan
RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 126: Who is Dalai Lama and where does he live ?
Options:
1) Tibetan Spiritual leader living in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh
2) Buddhist monk living in Tibet
3) Tibetan rebel fighting the Chinese
4) Religious leader from Tibet living in Kushalnagar, Coorg
Answer: Tibetan Spiritual leader living in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh
Q 127: In the geography class students were confused regarding the difference between climate and weather. Four of the students gave four answers. Which one is the correct difference ?
Options:
1) Climate is the sum total of variation in weather in an area whereas weather is the state of atmosphere over an area.
2) Climate and Weather are synonymous
3) Climate is the sum total of weather conditions over a large area for a long period of time and weather is the state of atmosphere over an area at any point of time.
4) Climate is the duration of seasons in a large area and weather refers to seasonal changes in a small area.
Answer: Climate is the sum total of weather conditions over a large area for a long period of time and weather is the state of atmosphere over an area at any point of time.
Q 128: The tournament that takes place in Roland Garros in Paris is associated with______
Options:
1) Lawn tennis
2) Table tennis
3) Basket ball
4) Bowling
Answer: Lawn tennis
Q 129: Which is the national sport of India ?
Options:
1) Cricket
2) Football
3) Hockey
4) Kabaddi
Answer: Hockey
Q 130: Where would you place vinegar if you were to how its pH on a scale showing pH from 1 to 8 to ?
Options:
1) Left of 7
2) Right of 7
3) On 7
4) On 8
Answer: Left of 7
Q 131: A gel is a
Options:
1) Suspension of a solid in a liquid
2) Suspension of tiny liquid droplets in another liquid
3) Gas trapped in a viscous liquid
4) Gas trapped in a semi- solid
Answer: Suspension of a solid in a liquid
Q 132: Which out of the following is incorrect regarding Lok Sabaha ?
Options:
1) 530 members are elected from states
2) 20 members are elected from Union Territories
3) 2 members from Anglo Indian community are elected by the community
4) 2 members of Anglo Indian community are nominated by the President if there is no member from the Anglo Indian community
Answer: 2 members from Anglo Indian community are elected by the community
Q 133: Some salts we use in the kitchen for cooking are given below but one is erroneously mentioned. Identify it
Options:
1) Sodium chloride
2) Sodium bi carbonate
3) Calcium Phosphate
4) Monosodium glutamate
Answer: Calcium Phosphate
Q 134: When mother was heating the oven to a certain temperature for baking a cake, the daughter wanted to know the difference between heat and temperature. In mother’s response which one statement was incorrect ?
Options:
1) Heat is a form of energy and temperature measures how hot something is
2) Heat is measured in Joules and temperature in degree Celsius (oC)
3) Heat and temperature both flow between temperatures
4) When heat energy flows, temperature increases or decreases
Answer: Heat and temperature both flow between temperatures
Q 135: Read the poem written by a child.
Plants will always grow
Wind will always blow
Solar cells will give electrical energy
Waves forever will make energy
About what dis a child write in the above poem?
Options:
1) Renewable energy resources
2) Non renewable energy resources
3) Energy resources of all kinds
4) Principle of conservation of energy
Answer: Renewable energy resources
Q 136: The colour of an object is the colour it reflects. So a red boot_______
Identify the wrong statement among the ones written below.
Options:
1) Looks red in white light as it reflects red and absorbs all other colours
2) Red in red light as it reflects red light falling on it
3) Looks black in green light which it absorbs
4) Red in green light when there is no red light
Answer: Red in green light when there is no red light
Q 137: Which of the following statements regarding international trade is true ?
Options:
1) Higher exchange rate makes country’s exports cheaper
2) Higher exchange rate makes country’s imports cheaper
3) Lower exchange rate makes country’s imports cheaper in domestic markets
4) Lower exchange rate makes country’s exports cheaper
Answer: Higher exchange rate makes country’s exports cheaper
Q 138: The main cause of balance of payments (BoP) deficit in developed free market economies is
Options:
1) Less demand for country’s exports
2) Less demand for country’s imports
3) Rising demand for country’s exports
4) Recurring Political instability in the country
Answer: Less demand for country’s exports
Q 139: Which democratic country has an unwritten constitution ?
Options:
1) United States
2) England
3) India
4) Canada and America
Answer: England
Q 140: If the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country is higher then Gross National Product (GNP), then
Options:
1) The total production by national and foreign individuals within the geographical boundaries of a country is lower than produced by its citizens on its land or foreign soil
2) Net payment outflow to foreign assets is greater than net income inflow from assets abroad
3) The strength of the country’s basal economy is less than economic strength of the nationals of the country
4) Net payments outflow is lower than incoming inflow
Answer: Net payment outflow to foreign assets is greater than net income inflow from assets abroad
Q 141: Sabnam introduced Vipul as the son of the only daughter of the father of her uncle.
Options:
1) Son
2) Uncle
3) Brother
4) Nephew
Answer: Brother
Q 142: The first two numbers on the left of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of number on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
6 : 42 :: 9 : ?
Options:
1) 90
2) 87
3) 73
4) 65
Answer: 90
Q 143: The two words on the left side of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of words on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
Water : Filter :: Movie : ?
Options:
1) Actor
2) Theater
3) Director
4) Censor
Answer: Censor
Q 144: Seven cars P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are kept in an exhibition. Q is to the immediate right of U. U fourth to the right of V.P is between R and S. V which is third to the left of S is at one of the ends.
Which is correct position of the car T ?
Options:
1) It is in the middle
2) It is fourth to the left of S
3) It is at one of the ends
4) It is next to V
Answer: It is at one of the ends
Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.
1) District 2) Nation 3) Married couple 4) State 5) Village 6) Family
Options:
1) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
2) 3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2
3) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4
4) 6, 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
Answer: 3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2
Q 146: The numbers in each group are related in a certain way, Choose the correct number from among the alternatives that will replace the question mark.
(13 [22] 31) (15 [33] 51) (17 [?} 69)
Options:
1) 55
2) 38
3) 44
4) 43
Answer: 43
Q 147: In a certain language, ‘273’ means ‘leaves are green’; ‘5426’ means ‘green is a color’; and ‘9524’ means ‘color is bright green’, Which digit means ‘bright’ in that language ?
Options:
1) 4
2) 2
3) 9
4) 5
Answer: 9
Q 148: If ‘BACKWARD’ is coded as ‘DBARACKW’, then ‘HANDLING’ woulde be coded as:
Options:
1) GHANINDL
2) GHANNILD
3) GHANINLD
4) GHNANILD
Answer: GHANINDL
Q 149: Starting from his house, Mohan walks 10 km to the South; turns left and walks 12 km. He turns right and walks 5 km. Finally he turns right and walks 20 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
Options:
1) 15 km
2) 17 km
3) 23 km
4) 27 km
Answer: 17 km
Q 150: The numbers in the matrix given below follow a certain trend row-wise and and/or column wise. Study the trend and choose the number which will replace the question mark ?
| 5 | 4 | 7 |
| 14 | 25 | 9 |
| 12 | ? | 5 |
Options:
1) 49
2) 35
3) 22
4) 16
Answer: 49
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RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
